Was Membership in a Local Church a Part of New Testament Polity?

1. Acts 18 27 is the earliest mention of letters which would accompany a person moving to another church fellowship. Speaking of Apollos:

Acts 18:26ff ........ Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him to them and expounded to him the way of God more perfectly. 27And when he was disposed to pass into Achaia, the brothers wrote, exhorting the disciples to receive him: who, when he had come, helped them greatly who had believed through grace:

2. 2 Cor 3:1 shows that some needed letters of commendation also showing that was a common practice as it says that they also wrote such letters as well as receiving them.

2 Cor 3:1 Do we begin again to commend ourselves? or do we need, as some do, epistles of commendation to you, or letters of commendation from you?

3. 1Tim 5:9 speaks of supporting widows. "Taken into the number" shows there had to be a reckoning of who was and was not a member "in the number."

1 Tim 5:9 let not a widow be taken into the number under sixty years old, having been the wife of one man,

4. The tradition of extending "the right hand of fellowship" to someone who has not been a local member but makes their own statement that they have been baptized in the name of Jesus for the remission of sins and wish membership in a local Christian Church is based on Gal 2:9. Our tradition is to accept a statement in lieu of a letter. No letter seems to have been given to or carried by Paul and Barnabas.

Ga 2:9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go to the heathen, and they to the circumcision.

5. A person could be deprived of membership. He could be "disfellowshipped" by the action of the whole congregation (not the preacher or elders). If he was removed as a member then there must have been a membership roll to which he with others belonged.

1Cor 4In the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, when you are gathered together and my spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus Christ, 5To deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus. 6Your glorying is not good. Do you not know a little leaven leavens the whole lump? 7 Therefore purge out the old leaven, that you may be a new lump, as you are unleavened.

6. Elders have responsibility over the "flock." There has to be some way to know who is in the flock and who is not. How can you watch over some one if you do not know who is in the flock.

Acts 29 :28 Take heed therefore to yourselves and to all the flock, over which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he has purchased with his own blood.

1Pet 5:2 Feed the flock of God which is among you, taking the oversight of it, not by constraint, but willingly; not for filthy lucre, but from a ready mind; 3Not as being lords over God's heritage, but being examples to the flock.

7. Christians are admonished to obey the elders in their local church. How do you know which congregation’s elders are responsible for you and which ones you are to respect as your spiritual overseers if you are not a member of a local church. Christians are to obey their elders of their local "flock." Members at 1st Christian do not need to seek the advice of the elders of Ben Hill Christian Church, Their elders are responsible for their flock, not ours. Unless someone, from there, places his "membership" here.

Hebrews 13: 7 Remember those who have leadership over you, who have spoken to you the word of God: whose faith follow, .........17Obey those who have the leadership and submit yourselves: for they watch for your souls, as those who must give an account, that they may do it with joy and not with grief: for that is unprofitable for you.

8. A Bible based church scripturally, fully "set in order" (see Titus 1:5) has elders who are the leaders assisted by deacons who SERVE the saints who make up the congregation. Paul and Timothy wrote to them. Notice they did not write to "The Pastor." There was no one man "Pastor." They included the saints or those saved Christians who would be in the "number."

Plilp 1:1 Paul and Timotheus, the servants of Jesus Christ, to all the saints in Christ Jesus who are at Philippi, with the bishops and deacons:

9. A sinning member who had been expelled from the local church could be restored to membership. That is: he could be restored to the fellowship of that local church upon his repentance. There seems to have been a formal acceptance offered that was yet to be offered in Corinth to the repentant sinner who was expelled after the action in 1 Cor 5. The following scripture show that the disfellowship action was carried out by the congregation i.e. was inflicted of many, – not by officers or one man. The repentant brother was restored to membership.

2Cor 2: 6 Sufficient to such a man is this punishment, which was inflicted of many. 7So that contrariwise you ought rather to forgive him and comfort him, lest perhaps such a one should be swallowed up with overmuch sorrow. 8Therefore I beseech you that you would confirm your love toward him. 9For also to this end I wrote, that I might know the proof of you, whether you would be obedient in all things. 10 To whom you forgive any thing, I forgive also:

10. Some people in Bible time, as well as the present, usurp authority that does not scripturally belong to them. (We are speaking about a New Testament church not any denomination which does not try to follow New Testament church order as Christian Churches have aimed at doing.) Diotrephes mentioned in 3rd John usurped the congregation’s authority as to who could and could not be received as a member and also "cast out" members of the church. If there were no church roll as who was or was not a member, how could they be "cast out?" Diotrephes could not have acted arbitrarily at all if he did not know which member opposed him. He was a usurper of the freedom which belonged to all. The rest of the letter shows that John ignored the false usurper and visited the church anyway.

John says in 3Jo. 9 I wrote to the church: but Diotrephes, who loves to have the preeminence among them, does not receive us. 10Therefore, if I come, I will remember his deeds which he does, prating against us with malicious words: and is not content with that, neither does he himself receive the brothers and forbids those who would and casts them out of the church.

What do you think happened to Diotrephes? Did the church let him stay?

Is Cannabis in the Bible

Does the Greek word kannabis which is hemp derive from the Hebrew "sweet cane" in Ex 30:23? And if so: Did they smoke it?

First since there is a Greek word for hemp, that is kannabis, (the Latin word for hemp is cannabis.) it would seem clear that if the Greek word were derived from the Hebrew words "q'neh-bosem" or that the Greek writers of the Septuagint would have known that derivation and have written kannabis meaning cannabis or hemp in Ex 30:23 instead of (kalamos) which means reed or cane, which is the same Greek word used for papyrus and all other reeds. The coincidence of similar sound between q'neh-bosem and cannabis is probably just that, coincidence.

In Ex 30:23

the mixture of spices which were to be mixed together which has among them the Hebrew words that your Rabbi says refers to cannabis could hardly be an intoxicating potion no matter what the composition of the "chrism"since it was to be used for pouring as an anointing oil on the head of Aaron and his sons and the conclusions of all the mixing is: "This shall be an holy anointing oil unto me throughout your generations." So it really doesn't matter if you defend the herbs or not that were in this oil. What ever the mixture was made of, the result was not to send Aaron on a "high." Even if hemp, though doubtful, were in this passage, it would not be justification of its use as a hallucinogen.

But the derivation of the word that has been given to you seems to me to be in error. The Hebrew word for Calamus in Ex 30:23 is made up of two words. They are qeneh-bosem. The word bosem is "sweet: (just above this is qiniman-bosem which is translated "sweet cinnamon") Again bosem is "sweet". That leaves us with the word qeneh (actually q'neh) which is only related to hemp in that hemp is also a reed or a cane. But is hemp a "sweet" cane? I don't know as I have never even seen a part of the plant. I suppose however that hemp is not a "sweet" cane. I have smelled the aroma at hippie gatherings at Stone Henge and I did not consider it sweet. Thus what ever was in the mixture of anointing oil, called calamus in English, it was probably not cannabis or hemp

The word calamus is used 3 times in the KJV. Of these both the Song 4:15 and the Ezek passage have the word q'neh in Hebrew without the word sweet following as in Ex. There is no "bosem" Thus Calamus is a proper translation of q'neh both of which mean reed or cane and they are generic, that is any reed or cane. Again, the word calamus in Song 4:15 is from the Hebrew q'neh alone. The word bosem (sweet) is not in the text in Song 4:15. The word q'neh translated calamus here appears 62 time in the OT and is translated reed, cane, spear, pen etc. beside calamus.

Now let us do the word cannabis. There is no word for this drug in Biblical Hebrew just as there is no word for galaxy in Biblical Hebrew since Galaxies were not discovered until the early part of the 20th century. Yes there is a word for galaxy in modern Hebrew,- it is a transliteration "galaqsah" an obvious transliteration of an English word, and so the word for cannabis in modern Hebrew is "qannabbos" which is obviously a transliteration of the English or Greek word. Thus the Hebrew word for hemp is derived from English (or Greek) not ancient Levitical Hebrew in Ex 30:23. Cannabis then is not mentioned in Ex 30:23 but "sweet cane" is mentioned

The word "calamus" as you have already discovered is derived from Greek. The Greek word (Kalamos) is used in the LXX in place of q'neh in Ex 30:23 and simply means reed or cane, and as the measuring reed used by Ezekiel to measure the temple of his vision. It stands for any kind of reed or cane. There may be a remote possible phonetic relation between hemp which is a reed called cannabis and the Greek word for reed which in English is calamus but there is not any Hebrew connection. And in spite of what I just wrote, it is very doubtful there is any etymological relation between the words cannabis and calamus.

Thus I would say your Rabbi smokes weed and would like to find some Biblical justification for it, rather than to say he is an expert in ancient Hebrew herbal mixtures. I doubt very much that he is.

I agree that legal opposition to the use of this weed and the penalties for possessing it is over done by authorities in our government at this time, but I do not use it , never have, and believe no Christian would use it except a backslider or one just baptized trying to get over it. Get high on the Holy Ghost just as it says in Eph 5:18 don't get high on booze, but fill yourself with the Holy Spirit". (Miller's translation) means "don't get high on weed, but let the Holy Spirit be your high through Christian music, worship, etc.

Let us be sure to see that even if there were a connection between the hemp plant and Ex 30:23 it was not going to be used for a hallucinogen. That kind of worship is a part of idolatrous and forbidden speaking-to-the-dead religions but not a part of Mosaic or Christian worship. Hemp makes good rope and good sack cloth. I am sorry that the misuse of the plant creates a shortage in the good uses the plant can be put to.

Semetic languages and Hebrew

Semetic Languages

All the Semetic languages are very similar. They may have a different script like the wedge shaped cuneiform of the original Assyrians. That script changed with the coming of Aramaic block script but still the same language. The Behistun Inscription of Darius I is an illustration of Aramaic written in cuneiform script about 500 BC. The cuneiform script was invented by the Sumerians (3500 BC?) whose language was different (a Hamitic language.) But the culture and science (Astronomy, the zodiac has not changed to this day, 360 degree circle and angles based on it, a base 60 and more) was adopted by the conquering Semites about 2000 to 1800 BC.

Another illustration of similar but not the same languages is Italian and Spanish. Same grammar, many similar words, but not the same language. But speakers of each can understand much of what the other speaker is saying. I had the experience with a French church of Christ evangelist in Lille, France, who was born in Italy. He didn't do English and I didn't do French but we communicated more or less in Spanish and hand signs. Hebrew and Aramaic is like that.

All the Semetic languages are related. Aramaic is similar to Hebrew and Arabic actually having the same Alef Bet for all three languages. Aramaic was the language of the whole of the Fertile Crescent (from the Persian Gulf round through Caananite Palestine) at least from the time of the Assyrian Empire beginning 800 BCE and probably before to Abrahamic time, on through New Testament times. The returnees from Babylonian captivity, 536 BCE, spoke Aramaic and it became the lingua franca of the Jews through the time of Ezra to the Advent of The Nazarene Carpenter. Since all people spoke Aramaic, Targums (Aramaic paraphrases of the scriptures) were written in the inter testament period so that attenders of the synogogue could understand what was taught. Targums are Aramaic paraphrases of Hebrew scripture and commentary. As you know Jesus spoke Aramaic. There is no Hebrew quotation from Jesus. Even Tabatha qumi is Aramaic. Eloi Eloi lama sabachtani is Aramaic. The Hebrew is Ely Ely lama azavtani. It means the same thing.

Original Hebrew script differs from the Block style Hebrew we are used to. In fact the block Hebrew characters are actually Aramaic and were adopted after the Babylonian captivity. To see an inscription in the Hebrew that was extant in Hezekiahs time click http://www.moellerhaus/22.htm and scroll down till you find the inscription that was written inside Hezekiah's Siloam Gihon Tunnel.

The Inscription, now in the Museum of the Ancient Orient in Istanbul, was found in 1880 by two boys wading inside Siloam tunnel some 20 feet above the western reservoir .

The ancient Hebrew script is nothing like the Aramaic block letters we now use. A part of the Bible is written in Aramaic, that is, a portion of Daniel is written in Aramaic and -- a large portion of Ezra is written in Aramaic and even the Hebrew portion has many Aramaic words.

100 years before Christ The Essenes are said to have composed the DSS Isaiah Scroll. The language of the scroll is Hebrew with a heavy Aramaic accent and some (a few only) Aramaic words. The script is manuscript Hebrew and does not look like the current characters. My Isaiah Scroll introduction pages are actually a grammar of the scroll. You might want to have a look. http://www.moellerhaus/qum-intr.htm

Of the Semetic languages the grammar is almost identical, the Alep Bet the same and much (but not all) vocabulary is shared. All pronominal suffixes are the same except Aramaic adds an open sylable. Like kem in Heb. is 2plural you (ye) and the same in Aramaic is kemah.

The Arabic is still the same: Salaam aley Kem is "peace upon you (ye) Hebrew is: Shalom
aley-kem