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Showing posts with label Masoretic text. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Masoretic text. Show all posts

Saturday, December 18, 2010

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Hebrew Pronunciation of Jesus' Name

Tim

Your question about the right Hebrew spelling of the name of Jesus or Yeshua.

I am not convinced that getting the "correct" pronunciation of a Hebrew name is all that important nor does the correct pronumciation carry any revelation with it.

And - Also -Importantly - Biblical Hebrew was (is not now) a tonal language. If you look at a Hebrew Masoretic text of the Scriptures you will find 10 or so added markings for vowels added by the masoretes. Masorah means traditional. Different vowel sounds change the meaning of a word. Thus, just in case the proper vowel pronunciation might be lost the masoretic scholars added vowels for what they believed was the traditional and correct reading. For vowels they were probably right most of the time but they were human so their choices are subject to discussion in some cases. However We are dependent on fifth and sixth century Jews (who rejected Jesus as the Messiah) for being able to read the Hebrew text. The unpointed text would be indecipherable to most scholars including Modern-Hebrew speaking scholars. There are just too many possibilities to get it right if those who memorized and, from generation to generation, orally transmitted the masorah, had not developed marks to indicate proper vowel, accent and tone. Modern-Hebrew is a close relative to Biblical Hebrew but it has a much different grammar.

In the masoretic text, beside vowel points, there are about 35 other marks added to indicate kind of accent and probably tones.

There are no forms for tense-time in Biblical Hebrew. There are no forms for subjunctive mode in Biblical Hebrew. At this time these grammatical concepts must be determined by the context. Thus there is disagreement in rendering the tense time of a verb depending on the translaters doctrinal position.

One good example of this among many, many, is Zechariah 8:3 "Thus says the LORD; I am returned to Zion" If you believe as I do that the passage is announcing the return of the Shekina to the Second Temple then the KJV is correct. However if you are a "Futurist" you will follow the NIV and translate "I will (or shall) return to Zion."

Is one of them wrong? No! the tense time depends on the context and therefore the translation is subject to interpretation because there is no tense-time forms in Biblical Hebrew. But, since the concepts of time and subjunctive are a part of any language, they had to be a part of Biblical Hebrew, that is now lost. I believe the tones that are understood only partially by only a few of the current Hebrew scholars would have indicated these concepts.

Like saying the English slang word "yeah." Depending on the tone of voice in English, you might be agreeing with something, or you might be (depending on the tone), expressing extreme doubt.

Thus getting the pronunciation of a name right is an exercise in furility. Getting the pronunciation of a verb correct however will determine whether your doctrinal position is right or wrong.

There are other reasons,in changing spelling, and not being right or wrong, in the pronunciation or vowel pointing of a Hebrew name in the masoretic text. The place of the name in the sentence, whether it is subject or object, and what sounds go before and after, whether it has sufformatives or preformatives added to the word are a few of the reasons the same Hebrew word or name will have a different vowel spelling.

Also; Tim - the question that you asked indicates that you know only a little of the Holy language. I recommend that you take some college level courses in this language. It is a very simple language. But it takes about four years to see the simplicity.

All the best en el nombre de Jesu Christo
o en ho onoma Iasou Christou

Tuesday, April 13, 2010

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Variations of Q from M, line 24 of the Qa 8:8 to 9:11


Q:

Dear Mr. Miller,

In the section "Variations of Q from Masoretic" of your comments to your translation of Column VIII of The Great Isaiah Scroll 8:8 to 9:11, you indicate the following: (Line 20: 3rd word: Q adds final "he" to the word "higaltah" (you increased) and in the 4th word "simcha" (joy) for the same reason described in ther last note. Line 21: 3rd word begins vs 3 Heb, Eng vs 4. The word "kiy" has a superfluous yod in Q. Line 22: 2nd word is Midian spelled "midiym" in Q and "midiyn" in the masoretic. Line 25, 1st word: "ha-misrah" has a yod over it which would make it to be pronounced "ha mi siy rah").

I wonder why you do not include the line 24 in the variations list.

Your translation of the line 24 reads:

"24. his shoulders and he shall be called wonderful, counsellor, mighty God, everlasting father the prince of peace." The Tanach translation of this line reads: "For a child has been born to us, a son given to us, and the authority is upon his shoulder, and the wondrous adviser, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, called his name, "the prince of peace."

I am sure you can agree that there is a great difference between "he shall be called mighty God, prince of peace" and "the mighty God called his name 'the prince of peace'".

How can you explain this discrepancy, please?

Yours sincerely,
(Name removed)


A:

Dear ------,

In English it is Isa 9:6, in Hebrew it is Isa 9:5.

The Hebrew masoretic text is plain. וַיִּקְרָ֨א He shall be called. Not He shall call. The dagesh (dot) in the yod indicates an elided nun making the verb a niphal 2nd stem meaning "he shall be called." The qal or 1st stem would be he shall call. The masoretic (Jewish) text reads "He shall be called." However even if it were a first stem the subject could not be el gibor (mighty God). The placement of el gibor in the sentence makes it one of the titles given to the son who is given to us. It is impossible for it to be the subject of וַיִּקְרָ֨א.

It is obvious why Jews, who do not believe in the messianic Mission of the Nazarene, would want to alter this verse from the masoretic meaning of its text. They also change the tense of the verb from an imperfect implying future to past (called) implying a perfect tense verb which it is not. I believe that Majorettes were correct and that the current modern Jewish translation of this verse is unscholarly to say the least.

all the best,

Fred P Miller